If my husband has not worked for 99.9% of our 10 year marriage nor has he contributed to the household, is he entitled to spousal support?

Do I need to hire an attorney?

Asked on October 28, 2015 under Family Law, Texas

Answers:

SJZ, Member, New York Bar / FreeAdvice Contributing Attorney

Answered 5 years ago | Contributor

Unfortunately, the factors you describe mean that he almost certainly IS entitled to spousal support. A non-working, or only occasionally working, spouse who has been supported by the other spouse for years is entitled to support because 1) that is the life style they had--one spouse supporting the other, and the second not having to work; and 2) he/she will need support, at least for several years to transition back to working. Turn the genders around: suppose that this was a wife who hadn't worked for years while being supported by her husband--clearly, the wife would get spousal support, and traditionally such non-working wives do get spousal support. The fact that in this case, the husband did not work, does not change the law or the analysis: he will almost certainly get support. The law does not discriminate based on gender.
Yes, you should retain an attorney to help you.


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