If in order to get my wife to sign the divorce papers I had to include that when my mother passes that she my exgets 35% of my inheritance, is this legal?

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If in order to get my wife to sign the divorce papers I had to include that when my mother passes that she my exgets 35% of my inheritance, is this legal?

My mother is still alive. When she passes and I don’t give the ex-wife the money can I win in court?

Asked on December 13, 2011 under Family Law, Washington

Answers:

Hong Shen / Roberts Law Group

Answered 9 years ago | Contributor

You stipulate whichever way you want to and it is not against the law in doing so. If you agree to this then you must fulfill it later on or otherwise you would be in contempt of the court order once a judge signs the stipulation.

Of course you do not have to agree to this and go to the court to let the judge decide.


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