If my wife and I were married for 2 years and have now been separated for 2 years, is she entitled to part of the equity in my house if I owned it prior to our marriage?
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If my wife and I were married for 2 years and have now been separated for 2 years, is she entitled to part of the equity in my house if I owned it prior to our marriage?
I paid all bills. Is she entitled to anything dealing with my house?
Asked on July 7, 2015 under Family Law, Maryland
Answers:
M.T.G., Member, New York Bar / FreeAdvice Contributing Attorney
Answered 8 years ago | Contributor
And you never placed her name on the deed to the house? Then generally speaking no, she would not be entitled to seek any increase in value over the last 4 years unless she did something active to contribute to it. Good luck.
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