If my husband predeceased his father, can he stipulate in his Will that whatever he may inherent would go to me.

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If my husband predeceased his father, can he stipulate in his Will that whatever he may inherent would go to me.

Is he correct?

Asked on February 21, 2014 under Estate Planning, Texas

Answers:

Anne Brady / Law Office of Anne Brady

Answered 7 years ago | Contributor

If your question is, "Can my father-in-law stipulate in his will that whatever your husband would have inherited under the will, had he outlived his father, will now go to me?" the answer is yes.  Your father-in-law can dictate in his will anyone he wants to inherit and what share.  He can divide his entire estate between you and his favorite charity, if he wants to, so long as the will is legally enforceable.


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