If a spouse has a home before marriage and the husband is not on the deed, is he entitled to any interest in it.

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If a spouse has a home before marriage and the husband is not on the deed, is he entitled to any interest in it.

I am thinking about getting a no- fault divorce and trying out about my rights. We have been marriage more than 15 years.

Asked on February 7, 2017 under Family Law, Mississippi

Answers:

M.D., Member, California and New York Bar / FreeAdvice Contributing Attorney

Answered 4 years ago | Contributor

Since the house was purchased by you before marriage and is still solely in your name, it remains your separate property. Your husband has no ownership rights. He may have a claim for any economic contribution (money or "sweat equity") if there were improvements made to the home during the marriage which increased the value of the home, such as adding a room, etc. Additionally, as a general rule, your husband will not be entitled to half of the equity gained. At this point, you may want to consult directly with a divorce attorney in your area.


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