If there is no deed to a house that my husband built and we paid taxes on, doI have any right to it in a divorce?

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If there is no deed to a house that my husband built and we paid taxes on, doI have any right to it in a divorce?

I am getting divorced after 20 years of marriage. The house is on my father-in-laws land but was built by my husband. When we got married we started paying property taxes in both our names for the last 20 years. We have no deed that I know of. We do have house insurance. Do I have any right to this property or will I be walking out of this marriage with nothing?

Asked on October 27, 2010 under Family Law, Kentucky

Answers:

M.T.G., Member, New York Bar / FreeAdvice Contributing Attorney

Answered 10 years ago | Contributor

You need to get legal help with this matter as soon as you possibly can.  You are going to have a huge fight on your hands to prove any ownership in this house - you or your husband for that matter - if the house is on another's land and has no designation of its own as to a block and lot, etc.  Paying all those things shows something but it may not add up to an indicia of ownership rights.  You father in law could state that you did those things in lieu of paying rent.  You say you paid taxes: does it have a separate tax designation? That could be a help.  Get really good advice here from a real estate attorney as well as a matrimonial attorney.  Good luck.


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