What do I do if my ex-wife signs my name to a property deed without my consent?

The property is in both of our names, however we have been divorced for 8 years. There was nothing in the divorce about the property but I will sell my half to her. How do I go about this?

Asked on November 5, 2018 under Real Estate Law, Ohio


M.D., Member, California and New York Bar / FreeAdvice Contributing Attorney

Answered 2 years ago | Contributor

The deed can be "set aside" due to the forgery. The fact is that this property  was an asset that should have been addressed in the settlement. At this point, you should consult directly with a divorce attorney who can best advise you further.

M.T.G., Member, New York Bar / FreeAdvice Contributing Attorney

Answered 2 years ago | Contributor

Well, that is called forgery and you can set the deed aside based upon same.  You need to consult with an attorney, especially if the marital asset was not included in your original settlement.  That sounds a bit like a mess up by the lawyers.  Good luck.

IMPORTANT NOTICE: The Answer(s) provided above are for general information only. The attorney providing the answer was not serving as the attorney for the person submitting the question or in any attorney-client relationship with such person. Laws may vary from state to state, and sometimes change. Tiny variations in the facts, or a fact not set forth in a question, often can change a legal outcome or an attorney's conclusion. Although AttorneyPages.com has verified the attorney was admitted to practice law in at least one jurisdiction, he or she may not be authorized to practice law in the jurisdiction referred to in the question, nor is he or she necessarily experienced in the area of the law involved. Unlike the information in the Answer(s) above, upon which you should NOT rely, for personal advice you can rely upon we suggest you retain an attorney to represent you.