If out of the blue I got a bill from a past doctor saying I owed $30 from 2 years ago, do I have to pay?

After 2 years I don’t no if I paid it or not.

Asked on December 1, 2011 under Bankruptcy Law, Tennessee


FreeAdvice Contributing Attorney / FreeAdvice Contributing Attorney

Answered 8 years ago | Contributor

If you received a bill for services rendered by a former doctor over two (2) years ago and the services were actually rendered, you do not have to pay the bill at this time. You can take a wait and see position as to whether or not your former doctor will push you for payment on the $30.00 allegedly owed.

If you have not paid the bill, then morally you should assuming actual services were rendered. Personally, I doubt that for $30.00 your account would be turned over to collections.

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