If my husband owned his home before we married and now wants to refinance the with my name on the note, do I become half owner even though my name is not on the deed?

Asked on July 17, 2015 under Family Law, Louisiana


M.T.G., Member, New York Bar / FreeAdvice Contributing Attorney

Answered 5 years ago | Contributor

No, you do not become half owner.  You only become half liable for the debt which is the note.  There can be other ways that one can become the owner per se in a marriage but why take that chance.  If you are going to be on the note then insist on being on the deed.  Good luck.

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