If you have the most recent version of a deed agreement with correspondence, are you legally obligated to produce a copy if the other party does not have it?

The deed would be from forty years ago and the first 2-3 versions of the deed had a rider that ceded a parcel of the land back to me. But I have a copy where the rider was removed later. It was pretty convoluted so the other party might not have a copy. The entire parcel of land was sold ten years ago for a large sum and I was wondering if I could be eligible.

Asked on July 10, 2012 under Real Estate Law, New York


FreeAdvice Contributing Attorney / FreeAdvice Contributing Attorney

Answered 8 years ago | Contributor

If you are in a real estate transaction where you are the seller, you are required to produce all items that are material to the transction that you have in hand or disclose such to the potential buyer.

Most likely the deed agreement with the correspondence should be disclosed to the other party to the transaction even though the preliminary report should reference it.

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