If 2 sales managers committed the same offense but only one was reprimanded, what legal recourse do I have?

Asked on September 25, 2017 under Employment Labor Law, Texas


M.D., Member, California and New York Bar / FreeAdvice Contributing Attorney

Answered 3 years ago | Contributor

You may have no recourse. The fact is that not all employees need be treated the same or even fairly. That is so log as no form of legally actionable discrimination is the reason for such differing treatment. In other words, it cannot be due to race, religion, disability, age (over 40), gender, etc. Otherwise, without an employment contract or union agreement, employment is "at will". This means that an employer can set the conditions of the workplace much as it sees fit.

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