Is it legal for a doctor to refuse treatment of one condition because of the patient's refusal to have a separate non-related test performed?
Question Details:
My doctor will no longer renew my oral contraceptives that are used only to treat menstrual problems without my having a pap smear. I told the doctor I would not be having the test done, and therefore my prescription is being withheld. I have found proof from the WHO, ACOG, and FDA that this test is not required for the prescription, and that nothing found in the test would prevent the pills from being prescribed. I am willing to accept responsibility and sign a waiver that the doctor was not at fault if somehow I develop this cancer but the doctor will not allow it. This seems unethical.
Medical Malpractice Law Answers
If the doctor believes that it is potentially dangerous or inappropriate to keep giving you the prescription without the test, he may refuse to do so. The fact that you have found other sources indicating it is not required does not overcome the doctor's own professional judgment about the best thing to do in this specific case. If the doctor believes that it would be wrong to proscribe without the test, he would actually be violating his ethical and professional obligations (and potentially committing malpractice) to give you the prescription.
If you and your doctor do not see eye to eye, it may be time for a different physician.
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