Does the PIP have to be paid back to the insurer as part of the settlement?

Question Details:

I was hit by a car on my bicycle; police report blamed driver for not giving way. The $3000 PIP was used to directly cover first part of medical expenses but additional expenses were paid by me. As part of the settlement, the insurer claims that the PIP needs to be paid back out of the agreed monies. Is this typical? Is this a legal requirement or a scam to reduce liability? Am I legally bound to pay this? Is this the same in all states? If I do need to pay this back as part of the settlement, is this amount typically included in the 2 -3 times medical costs claim as part of "pain and suffering"?

Asked 3/6/2010 under Insurance Law | 848 View(s) | More Legal Topics

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Insurance Law Law Answers

1) Whenever a person's own insurance ("first party" insurance) pays out (e.g. PIP; collision), if there is a lawsuit, the insurer has the right to be reimbursed for its payment out of any winnings. This prevents the insured from double dipping--e.g. if someone has $5k of medical expenses and gets $5k from the insurer, he should not be enriched by also winning another $5k.

2) The insurer would have a right to be paid either out of the proceeds of a successful lawsuit or from the amount recovered in a settlement. If you sue for and recover totally different damages--e.g. if you received medical from the insurer and sued for and won property damage reimbursement--you would not necessarily have to turn over those monies; but if you recover anything related to what you were paid by your insurance (e.g. if you received PIP, anything related to bodily injury), you would.

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